Particular Redemption - Part 6 of 7
In this doctrine, as with any doctrine, there are difficulties or what we call difficult passages to interpret and apply. Other difficult doctrines include the doctrine of Trinity, the Deity of Christ, eternal security of the believer, etc. This is why biblical doctrines are not formulated based on a single verse and why scripture is always interpreted in context seeking to discern the intended meaning of the original author to the original recipients. “And He Himself is the propitiation for our sins, and not for ours only but also for the whole world” 1 John 2:2. This is probably the most cited objection to the doctrine of limited atonement in the bible. With this in mind, let us consider the author’s intent and the context of the passage in question.
First of all, the Apostle John’s audience was specifically Jewish Christians whom he referred to as “My little children” (1 John 2:1). Secondly, with comforting assurance, the Apostle tells this band of Jewish believers that “if anyone sins, we have an Advocate with the Father, Jesus Christ the righteous” (1 John 2:1). At this point, the Apostle states that Christ is the “propitiation for our sins, and not only ours but also for the sins of the whole world” (1 John 2:1). It is clear that the Apostle was not making an argument for universal redemption. For those whom Christ has propitiated their sins, He also operates as their “Advocate with the Father” and we know that Jesus does not intercede for the whole world in a universal sense (John 17:9). Therefore, the “sins of the whole world” is the manner in which the Apostle explains that Christ’s atonement was not only for “us Jews” but also for gentile believers and also for all those who will believe throughout the whole world throughout all time.
John Gill, an 18th century Baptist pastor and theologian offers the following commentary;
“And he is the propitiation for our sins…For the sins of us who now believe, and are Jews: and not for ours only; but for the sins of Old Testament saints, and of those who shall hereafter believe in Christ, and of the Gentiles also, signified in the next clause: but also for [the sins] of the whole world; the Syriac version renders it, "not for us only, but also for the whole world"; that is, not for the Jews only, for John was a Jew, and so were those he wrote unto, but for the Gentiles also. Nothing is more common in Jewish writings than to call the Gentiles, “the world”; and, “the whole world”; and, “the nations of the world”; and the word "world" is so used in Scripture; see (John 3:16) (4:42) (Romans 11:12,15); and stands opposed to a notion the Jews have of the Gentiles, that “there is no propitiation for them”: and it is easy to observe, that when this phrase is not used of the Gentiles, it is to be understood in a limited and restrained sense; as when they say, it happened to a certain high priest, that when he went out of the sanctuary, “the whole world” went after him; which could only design the people in the temple. And elsewhere it is said, “the whole world” has left the Misna, and gone after the "Gemara"; which at most can only intend the Jews; and indeed only a majority of their doctors, who were conversant with these writings: and in another place, “the whole world” fell on their faces, but Raf did not fall on his face; where it means no more than the congregation… and so this phrase, “all the world”, or “the whole world”, in Scripture, unless when it signifies the whole universe, or the habitable earth, is always used in a limited sense, …and so it is in this epistle, (1 John 5:19) ; where the whole world lying in wickedness is manifestly distinguished from the saints, who are of God, and belong not to the world; and therefore cannot be understood of all the individuals in the world; and the like distinction is in this text itself, for "the sins of the whole world" are opposed to "our sins", the sins of the apostle and others to whom he joins himself; who therefore belonged not to, nor were a part of the whole world, for whose sins Christ is a propitiation as for theirs: so that this passage cannot furnish out any argument for universal redemption; for besides these things, it may be further observed, that for whose sins Christ is a propitiation, their sins are atoned for and pardoned, and their persons justified from all sin, and so shall certainly be glorified, which is not true of the whole world, and every man and woman in it; moreover, Christ is a propitiation through faith in his blood, the benefit of his propitiatory sacrifice is only received and enjoyed through faith; so that in the event it appears that Christ is a propitiation only for believers, a character which does not agree with all mankind; add to this, that for whom Christ is a propitiation he is also an advocate, (1 John 2:1) ; but he is not an advocate for every individual person in the world; yea, there is a world he will not pray for (John 17:9) , and consequently is not a propitiation for them. Once more, the design of the apostle in these words is to comfort his "little children" with the advocacy and propitiatory sacrifice of Christ, who might fall into sin through weakness and inadvertency; but what comfort would it yield to a distressed mind, to be told that Christ was a propitiation not only for the sins of the apostles and other saints, but for the sins of every individual in the world, even of these that are in hell?”[1]
First of all, the Apostle John’s audience was specifically Jewish Christians whom he referred to as “My little children” (1 John 2:1). Secondly, with comforting assurance, the Apostle tells this band of Jewish believers that “if anyone sins, we have an Advocate with the Father, Jesus Christ the righteous” (1 John 2:1). At this point, the Apostle states that Christ is the “propitiation for our sins, and not only ours but also for the sins of the whole world” (1 John 2:1). It is clear that the Apostle was not making an argument for universal redemption. For those whom Christ has propitiated their sins, He also operates as their “Advocate with the Father” and we know that Jesus does not intercede for the whole world in a universal sense (John 17:9). Therefore, the “sins of the whole world” is the manner in which the Apostle explains that Christ’s atonement was not only for “us Jews” but also for gentile believers and also for all those who will believe throughout the whole world throughout all time.
John Gill, an 18th century Baptist pastor and theologian offers the following commentary;
“And he is the propitiation for our sins…For the sins of us who now believe, and are Jews: and not for ours only; but for the sins of Old Testament saints, and of those who shall hereafter believe in Christ, and of the Gentiles also, signified in the next clause: but also for [the sins] of the whole world; the Syriac version renders it, "not for us only, but also for the whole world"; that is, not for the Jews only, for John was a Jew, and so were those he wrote unto, but for the Gentiles also. Nothing is more common in Jewish writings than to call the Gentiles, “the world”; and, “the whole world”; and, “the nations of the world”; and the word "world" is so used in Scripture; see (John 3:16) (4:42) (Romans 11:12,15); and stands opposed to a notion the Jews have of the Gentiles, that “there is no propitiation for them”: and it is easy to observe, that when this phrase is not used of the Gentiles, it is to be understood in a limited and restrained sense; as when they say, it happened to a certain high priest, that when he went out of the sanctuary, “the whole world” went after him; which could only design the people in the temple. And elsewhere it is said, “the whole world” has left the Misna, and gone after the "Gemara"; which at most can only intend the Jews; and indeed only a majority of their doctors, who were conversant with these writings: and in another place, “the whole world” fell on their faces, but Raf did not fall on his face; where it means no more than the congregation… and so this phrase, “all the world”, or “the whole world”, in Scripture, unless when it signifies the whole universe, or the habitable earth, is always used in a limited sense, …and so it is in this epistle, (1 John 5:19) ; where the whole world lying in wickedness is manifestly distinguished from the saints, who are of God, and belong not to the world; and therefore cannot be understood of all the individuals in the world; and the like distinction is in this text itself, for "the sins of the whole world" are opposed to "our sins", the sins of the apostle and others to whom he joins himself; who therefore belonged not to, nor were a part of the whole world, for whose sins Christ is a propitiation as for theirs: so that this passage cannot furnish out any argument for universal redemption; for besides these things, it may be further observed, that for whose sins Christ is a propitiation, their sins are atoned for and pardoned, and their persons justified from all sin, and so shall certainly be glorified, which is not true of the whole world, and every man and woman in it; moreover, Christ is a propitiation through faith in his blood, the benefit of his propitiatory sacrifice is only received and enjoyed through faith; so that in the event it appears that Christ is a propitiation only for believers, a character which does not agree with all mankind; add to this, that for whom Christ is a propitiation he is also an advocate, (1 John 2:1) ; but he is not an advocate for every individual person in the world; yea, there is a world he will not pray for (John 17:9) , and consequently is not a propitiation for them. Once more, the design of the apostle in these words is to comfort his "little children" with the advocacy and propitiatory sacrifice of Christ, who might fall into sin through weakness and inadvertency; but what comfort would it yield to a distressed mind, to be told that Christ was a propitiation not only for the sins of the apostles and other saints, but for the sins of every individual in the world, even of these that are in hell?”[1]
7 Comments:
Well I haven't read all of it but I can appreciate the effort this has taken. I have one bible study to prepare for and it takes me hours to do it properly.
Thank you for the time and effort and may the Lord continue to bless you as you serve him.
I mean not that you don't already have "every spiritual blessing" in Christ...(Eph. 1).
Much Grace
Josh
The notion that John is referring to Jews and Gentiles limits the word and contextual meaning. This passage of scripture was written around 90 AD and this was almost 60 years after the death and resurrection of Christ. The apostle Paul had already written about the church being composed of both ethnic Jews and Gentiles. So the whole Jew/Gentile discussion was old news by the time John wrote this passage.
Hi Rob Mart,
I took a moment to glance through your blog. You have some interesting posts.
Thanks for coming by. As to your comment, the thrust of the position cited by Gill does not hinge only on the audience being Jewish but we are certain that the author, John, was Jewish.
Blessings,
Chris
The apostle John never makes it a point to refer to ethnicity in his epistles. Gill makes a point of it to deny the true, contexual meaning of the word. To change the word 'world' into meaning both Jews and Gentiles violates the original intent of John. His readers would have consisted of both Jew and Gentile Christians and they would have understood word 'cosmos' as meaning whole world.
Rob Mart,
You are in a large company of simpathetic Bible students. My take:
1) Everyone admits that LA has some difficult texts but every major doctrine in the Bible does also. We don't reject the Trinity because of difficult texts nor do we reject the Perseverence of the Saints because of difficult texts.
2) The gospel of John is the most Calvinistic/predestinarian book in the Bible most of which are established by Christ's own words. John knew His Jesus and I find no reason why he would establish a single verse to contradict so many others in his own gospel.
3) The rest of the posts on Particular Redemption establish the biblical criteria for Particular Redemption. Feel free to read through them at your leisure.
Blessings,
Chris
I beg to differ concerning John being the most Calvinistic book in the Bible. The fact is that not one point (TULIP) of Calvinism is supported by scripture. Furthermore, I do reject the Calvinistic view of the perseverence of saints because it is not supported by scripture.
I will read through the rest of your post hopefully gain a better understanding of your views concerning particular redemption.
Thanks,
Robert
Rob,
Feel free to look around. Thank you for being so upfront about where you are coming from.
If you were simply unable to see the merit of Particular Redemption, I think we could still get along fine. But to say that there is no biblical merit for any of the doctrines of grace places you well outside the mainstream.
Even Roger Olson's book on Arminianism doesn't deny all 5 points, just 3 of the 5.
As I understand it, there are only 3 real options -
Semi-Pelagianism
Arminianism
Calvinism
Most non-calvinist sort of hybrid themselves between semi-pelagianism and arminianism. Regardless of where you are at theologically, based on your statements here, I don't think we will have alot of agreement of the subject of salvation.
Chris
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